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MCQ for physiotherapy in Orthopaedics

Updated: May 22

Welcome to the world of orthopedic multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for physiotherapy. This is 1st blog post of the orthopedic physiotherapy mcqs series. You can join our social media or subscribe to our blog post to get regular updates.

pt in orthopedics mcqs

This set of Orthopedic MCQs with answers is designed to help you test and improve your knowledge of orthopedic physiotherapy.

As a physiotherapist, understanding the musculoskeletal system and its disorders is essential in helping patients recover from injuries, surgeries, and chronic conditions.

These MCQs cover a wide range of topics related to orthopedic physiotherapy, including

  • Anatomy

  • Biomechanics

  • Pathophysiology

  • Clinical examination

  • Treatment interventions. Let's get started!

By practicing these questions, you can enhance your understanding of the subject and prepare yourself for professional exams or clinical practice. Join our telegram channel for daily MCQs and answer explanations.

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Attempt all MCQs question carefully

1. Which of the following muscles are stance phase muscles?

a) Quadriceps.

b) Hamstring muscles.

c) Anterior tibial.

d) Peroneus longus.

e) Soleus - gastrocnemius.


2. Ortolani's test is done for

a) Congenital dislocation hip

b) Dislocation of the patella

c) Meniscal injury of the knee joint

d) Perthes' disease


3. All of the following statements about a positive trendelenberg's sign are true, except

a) It occurs with coxa vara

b) It occurs with paralysis of hip adductors

c) If it is present on both sides, the gait can look normal

d) If it is present on one side, the patient has a lurching gait downwards towards the unsupported side


4. Antalgic hip gait is related to which of the following

a) Waddling gait

b) Trendelenberg gait

c) Painful hip gait

d) Short leg gait


5. Which of the following is seen in bilateral congenital dislocation of the hip?

a) Waddling Gait.

b) Shenton's line is broken.

c) Trendelenberg test positive.

d) Allis test positive


6. Treatment of CTEV should begin :

a) Soon after birth.

b) After discharge from the hospital.

c) After one month.

d) At 2 years.


7. In a newborn child, abduction and internal rotation produce a click sound. It is known as:

a) Otorolani's sign.

b) Telescoping sign.

c) Mc Murray's sign.

d) Lachman's sign.


8. Barlow's sign is related to the diagnosis of

a) Talipes equino varus

b) Ulnar nerve palsy

c) Genu varum

d) Congenital dislocation of the hip.


9. The word "Talipes" refers to

a) Long feet with spidery toes

b) Flat feet

c) Club feet

d) Hammer's toes


10. Multiple bone fracture in a newborn is seen in

a) Scurvy

b) Syphilis

c) Osteogenesis imperfecta

d) Morquio's syndrom



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11. Bone dysplasia is due to

a) Faulty nutrition

b) Faulty development

c) Trauma

d) Parathyroid tumor


12. Sequestrum is

a) A piece of infected bone

b) A Piece of dead bone

c) Organised inflammatory exudates

d) Segregated marrow tissue


13. Which is false regarding acute osteomyelitis?

a) Staphylococcus is the usual organism.

b) Rest and elevation relieve pain.

c) Parenteral antibiotics are given.

d) Surgery is the only treatment.


14. Which never involves an epiphyseal plate?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Osteoclastoma

c) Acute osteomyelitis

d) Osteochondroma


15. The most common source of bone and joint infection is

a) Direct spread

b) Percutaneous

c) Lymphatic

d) Haematogenous


16. Tuberculosis of the spine is known as;

a) Pott's disease.

b) Scheuermann's disease.

c) Perthes disease.

d) Frieberg's disease.


17. Tuberculous arthritis in advanced cases lead to:

a) Bony ankylosis.

b) Fibrous ankylosis.

c) Loose joints.

d) Charcot joints.


18. Triple deformity is a complication of

a) Rheumatoid arthritis

b) Tuberculosis

c) Osteoarthritis

d) septic arthritis


19. The complications of Paget's disease are:

a) Osteogenic sarcoma.

b) Deafness.

c) Heart failure.

d) All of the above.


20. Increased bone density occurs in:

a) Cushing syndrome.

b) Hypoparathyroidism.

c) Fluorosis.

d) Hyperthyroidism





21. Swan neck deformity is a feature of

a) Syphilitic arthritis

b) Gouty arthritis

c) Rheumatoid arthritis

d) Osteoarthritis


22. The most common site of Disc prolapse is

a) L2-L3

b) L3-L4

c) L4-L5

d) L4-S1


23. The most common site for the Prolapse of the intervertebral Disc is

a) Cervical region

b) Lower thoracic region-

c) Upper thoracic region

d) Lumbar region


24. The common vertebral level of spondylolisthesis is

a) L4-L5

b) L3-L4

c) L1-L2

d) T12-L1

e) L5-S1


25. Myositis ossificans is most common around the joint

a) Knee.

b) Elbow.

c) Wrist.

d) Hip


26. The most important sign in Volkmann's ischaemic contracture is:

a) Pain.

b) Pallor.

c) numbness.

d) Obliteration of radial pulse.


27. Duga's test is helpful in

a) Dislocation of the hip.

b) Scaphoid fracture

c) Fracture of neck of femur.

d) Anterior dislocation of the shoulder


28. Treatment of choice for fractured neck of the humerus in a 70-year-old male

a) analgesic with an arm sling.

b) U-Slab

c) Arthroplasty.

d) Open reduction - Internal fixation.


29. Anterior dislocation of the shoulder is most commonly complicated by

a) Axillary artery injury

b) Circumflex nerve injury

c) Recurrent dislocation

d) Axillary nerve injury


30. The Rotator cuff is composed of four of the following muscles except

a) Teres minor

b) Supraspinatus

c) Infraspinatus

d) Teres major

e) Subscapularis


  • This book contains more than 2000 questions.

  • This book covers all the portions of all the universities in India

  • Questions and Answers are given with proper explanations and pictures based on reference books.

  • This book will be extensively used for both U.G & P.G. Physiotherapy and Occupational Therapy students.


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